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by Kristin on 01 Feb. 2010 15:17
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Hey,
my first question is regarding slide 75 and the term for the optimal investment:
i*=argmax {2[p-100+200-p-i+v(i)]/3+(250-100-c+p-p-i+c)/3}
I donīt really know, why we include Bīs valuation v(i) here in the first part. His valuation is 200 if I am right, isnīt it?
The second question is also related to this topic on slide 77. I understand the derivation of the term c(p)=3p-210, but I do not understand the meaning of it. What does it tell us? Prof. Kirstein depicted a graph to this topic with the compensation on the vertical and the price on the horizontal axis. We compared the line with the 45° line, indicating the "original situation" as I wrote down. What does it mean, that the line starts in the negative part and what is meant with "original situation"?
Thanks for any helping comments.
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